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Share some Database Application Development 1Z0-148 exam questions and answers below.
Examine the following SQL statement:

ALTER SESSION SET PLSQL_OPTIMIZE_LEVEL=3;

What is the result of executing this statements?

A. The PL/SQL optimize level for some existing PL/SQL units will be changed as an immediate result.

B. The PL/SQL optimize level for subsequently complied PL/SQL units will be set to 3 and inlining will be enabled.

C. The PL/SQL optimize level for subsequently compiled PL/SQL units will be set to 3 and inlining will be disabled.

D. This statement will fail because PLSQL_OPTIMIZE_LEVEL can only be set at the system level,

Answer: C

Which must be true in order to add RESULT_CACHE to a function header and have it compile successfully?

A. The IN parameters must not include BLOB, CLOB, collection or record data types.

B. The function must be created with invoker’s rights or in an anonymous block.

C. The function must be declared as a pipelined table function.

D. The function must have an OUT or an IN OUT parameter.

Answer: C

Which two statements are true with respect to fine-grained access control?

A. It is implemented by end users.

B. It can be used to implement column masking.

C. It implements security rules through functions and associates these security rules with tables, views or synonyms.

D. Separate policies are required for queries versus INSERT/UPDATE/DELETE statements.

E. The DBMS_FGA package is used to set up fine-grained access control.

Answer: C,D

Which statement is true about internal and external LOBs?

A. An external LOB can be loaded into an internal LOB variable using the DBMS_LOB package.

B. A NOEXIST_DIRECTORY exception can be raised when using internal and external LOBs.

C. Internal and external LOBs can be written using DBMS_LOB.

D. After an exception transfers program control outside a PL/SQL block, all references to open external LOBs are lost.

E. When using DBMS_LOB.INSTR for internal and external LOBs, DBMS_LOB.OPEN should be called for each LOB.

Answer: D,E

You are designing and developing a complex database application built using many dynamic SQL statements. Which option could expose your code to SQL injection attacks?

A. Using bind variables instead of directly concatenating parameters into dynamic SQL statements

B. Using automated tools to generate code

C. Not validating parameters which are concatenated into dynamic SQL statements

D. Validating parameters before concatenating them into dynamic SQL statements

E. Having excess database privileges

Answer: A

Which two statements describe actions developers can take to make their application less vulnerable to security attacks?

A. Include the AUTHID DEFINER clause in stored program units.

B. Do not concatenate unchecked user input into dynamically constructed SQL statements.

C. Switch from using DBMS_SQL to EXECUTE IMMEDIATE.

D. Include the AUTHID CURRENT_USER clause in stored program units.

E. Increase the amount of code that is accessible to users by default.

Answer: B,D

Which two statements are true regarding edition-based redefinition (EBR)?

A. There is no default edition defined in the database.

B. EBR does not let you upgrade the database components of an application while in use.

C. You never use EBR to copy the database objects and redefine the copied objects in isolation.

D. Editions are non-schema objects.

E. When you change an editioned object, all of its dependents remain valid.

F. Tables are not editionable objects.

Answer: E,F

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Share some Java and Middleware 1Z0-808 exam questions and answers below.
Which statement best describes encapsulation?

A. Encapsulation ensures that classes can be designed so that only certain fields and methods of an object are accessible from other objects.

B. Encapsulation ensures that classes can be designed so that their methods are inheritable.

C. Encapsulation ensures that classes can be designed with some fields and methods declared as abstract.

D. Encapsulation ensures that classes can be designed so that if a method has an argument MyType x, any subclass of MyType can be passed to that method.

Answer: A

Which two class definitions fail to compile?

A. abstract class A3 {private static int i;public void doStuff(){}public A3(){}}

B. final class A1 {public A1(){}}

C. public class A2 {private static int i;private A2(){}}

D. class A4 {protected static final int i;private void doStuff(){}}

E. final abstract class A5 {protected static int i;void doStuff(){}abstract void doIt();}

Answer: C,E

Which statement is true about the switch statement?

A. It must contain the default section.

B. The break statement, at the end of each case block, is mandatory.

C. Its case label literals can be changed at runtime.

D. Its expression must evaluate to a single value.

Answer: D

Which two are benefits of polymorphism?

A. Faster code at runtime

B. More efficient code at runtime

C. More dynamic code at runtime

D. More flexible and reusable code

E. Code that is protected from extension by other classes

Answer: B,D

Which three statements describe the object-oriented features of the Java language?

A. Objects cannot be reused.

B. A subclass can inherit from a superclass.

C. Objects can share behaviors with other objects.

D. A package must contain more than one class.

E. Object is the root class of all other objects.

F. A main method must be declared in every class.

Answer: B,C,F

Which statement will empty the contents of a StringBuilder variable named sb?

A. sb. deleteAll ();

B. sb. delete (0, sb. size () );

C. sb. delete (0, sb. length () );

D. sb. removeAll ();

Answer: C

Which three statements are true about exception handling?

A. Only unchecked exceptions can be rethrown.

B. All subclasses of the RuntimeException class are recoverable.

C. The parameter in a catch block is of Throwable type.

D. All subclasses of the RuntimeException class must be caught or declared to be thrown.

E. All subclasses of the Exception class except the RuntimeException class are checked exceptions.

F. All subclasses of the Error class are checked exceptions and are recoverable.

Answer: C,E,F

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Share some Software as a Service – Oracle Human Capital Management Cloud 1Z0-969 exam questions and answers below.
A customer is implementing the two-tier employment model. At what level are payroll run results captured in cloud payroll?

A. Payroll Relationship only

B. Work Relationship and Assignment

C. Assignment only

D. Payroll Relationship and Assignment

Answer: C

You have a requirement to stop the new entries from being created for an element and to continue the existing entries. How do you achieve this?

A. End date the element definition.

B. Change the effective date to the required date and select the “Closed for entry” check box.

C. You cannot achieve this requirement because you need to continue the existing element entries.

D. Delete the element definition and re-create it with a different effective date.

Answer: B

Your customer is using Fusion Absences and wants to send absence information through to Fusion Global Payroll so that it can be proceed. Aside from creating your absence elements and an absence plan, which two steps do you need to complete? (Choose two.)

A. Create an Absence Calculation Card to store the absence details.

B. Create element eligibility for your absence elements.

C. Manually enter the absence units in the employees element entry.

D. Select the “Transfer absence payment Information for payroll processing”Checkbox and attach the absence element to the absence plan.

Answer: B,D

Which statement accurately describes how you create a tax reporting unit (TRU)?

A. When you identify a legal entity as a legal employer, the application transfers the legal reporting units that are associated with that legal employer to HCM as tax reporting units.

B. When you identify a legal entity as a payroll statutory unit, the application transfers the legal reporting units that are associated with that legal entity to HCM as tax reporting units.

C. You can identify a legal entity as a tax reporting unit.

D. If you identify a legal entity as a payroll statutory unit, you will have the option to identify the payroll statutory unit as a tax reporting unit.

Answer: A

You have a requirement for not processing an element entry based on a specific condition that will be evaluated during payroll run. How should you achieve this?

A. You write a skip rule with the condition so that the element is not processed when the condition is satisfied.

B. You write a calculation formula with the condition so that the element is not processed when the condition is satisfied.

C. You write a validation formula with the condition so that the element is not processed when the condition is satisfied.

D. You cannot meet this requirement because once an element entry is created, it will be processed all the time.

Answer: B

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Share some Software as a Service – Oracle Enterprise Resource Planning Cloud 1Z0-963 exam questions and answers below.
Five requisition lines of a single requisition document are available to process on to purchase order. But the buyer returned one requisition line to the requester for quantity modification.What will be the effect of this action on the remaining four requisition lines?

A. They will be put on hold until the requester resubmits the returned line with the correct quantity.

B. They will also get returned to the requester.

C. They will be in the “withdrawn” status.

D. They will be available to process on to purchaseorder.

E. They will get canceled.

Answer: A

During a Procurement Contract implementation, a customer would like to set up their own line type for buying services. They intend to use this line type for negotiating terms for future purchase of services and do not have a defined scope of work.

Identify the source that the customer needs to select while creating the line type to meet this requirement.

A. Free form, buy

B. Free form, buy agreement

C. Item, buy agreement

D. Item, buy

Answer: D

What is the difference between Prospective and Spend authorized suppliers?

A. Prospective suppliers can participate in Sourcing activities only, whereas Spend authorized suppliers can participate in all Procure-to-Pay activities.

B. Prospective suppliers arelimited to sourcing and qualification activities, whereas Spend authorized suppliers are limited to purchase orders and agreements.

C. Prospective suppliers are limited to purchase orders, whereas both purchase order and agreement can be created for Spendauthorized suppliers.

D. Prospective suppliers are suggested by internal users, whereas Spend authorized suppliers are registered externally.

Answer: B

Which option would the application first look at to default the Location field in the Purchase Order Line?

A. Purchase Order Header

B. supplier site assignment record of the supplier site in the RequisitioningBU

C. BU assignment record of the source agreement that corresponds to the Requisitioning BU

D. ¡°Requisitioning Business Function Configuration¡± task of the Requisitioning BU

Answer: D

You have defined an attribute named ¡®Years of Experience¡¯ in your negotiation. You have set up scores for acceptable value ranges, and would like to rate responses based on this score. On getting the responses from the participating suppliers, you observe that for a few suppliers, the score was not calculated. Identify the reason for this issue.

A. The Negotiation type is RFI (Request for Information); therefore, scoring is optional.

B. The attribute ¡®Years of Experience¡¯ was not marked as Required, so the supplier did not provide any value.

C. Sourcing does not support attribute definition.

D. You already have a few suppliers defined in the system; therefore, the scoring did not take place.

Answer: B

Identify two profile options that are required to configure Punchout Catalogs in Self Service Procurement.

A. PO_DOC_BUILDER_DEFAULT_DOC_TYPE

B. PO_DEFAULT_PRC_BU

C. POR_DISPLAY_EMBEDDED_ANALYTICS

D. POR_PROXY_SERVER_NAME

E. POR_PROXY_SERVER_PORT

Answer: D,E

During an implementation, the super user is requesting you to explain how to set up “risks” to be used in the Procurement Contracts by all users. You are in the middle of the year and currently there are few “risks” that are already defined and the organization is planning to introduce new “risks” from New Year’s Day.Identify the two steps the user should follow to fulfill this requirement.

A. Wait until year end, inactivate the old risks data on year end, and create and activate new risks from the same day.

B. Provide an end date as year end for the old risk data,create new risks now, and provide New year’s Day as start date.

C. Create new risks now, enable those at year end, and disable the old data on year end.

D. The user needs to delete old risks and create new risks around the year end.

Answer: A,B

Five requisition lines of a single requisition document are available to process on to purchase order. But the buyer returned one requisition line to the requester for quantity modification.What will be the effect of this action on the remaining four requisition lines?

A. They will be put on hold until the requester resubmits the returned line with the correct quantity.

B. They will also get returned to the requester.

C. They will be in the “withdrawn” status.

D. They will be available to process on to purchaseorder.

E. They will get canceled.

Answer: A

During the implementation, your customer wants to understand the key features of the two-stage Request For Quotation (RFQ) available in Oracle Sourcing Cloud.

Identify three features of the two-stage RFQ.

A. Technical and Commercial Evaluation

B. Open Auctions

C. Two stage Evaluation

D. Response Visibility Blind

E. Response Visibility Open

F. Response Visibility is always Sealed

Answer: A,C,F

While creating a Contract Purchase Agreement, a buyer tries to add a Contract Template to it, but the List of Values (VOL) is empty.

Identify three applicable reasons for this issue.

A. The document type associated with the Contract Template is ¡®Blanket Purchase Agreement¡¯.

B. The Contract Template is not ¡®Approved¡¯.

C. The document typeassociated with the Contract Template is ¡®Purchase Order¡¯.

D. The Contract Template is in ¡®Approved¡¯ status.

E. The document type associated with the Contract Template is ¡®Contract Purchase Agreement¡¯.

Answer: C,D,E

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Share some Software as a Service – Oracle Customer Experience Cloud 1Z0-971 exam questions and answers below.
A business unit has set up a calendar based on fiscal months, but period data is not displaying on reports Select the configuration you must verify to identify the root cause.

A. Report to work area mapping is defined for each period.

B. Status is set to ‘Active’ for all of the required months.

C. ‘Display period data in participant reports’ is selected.

D. Start and end dates for the fiscal months are valid.

Answer: D

You have been asked to create a report by using internal and external data sources. Identify Oracle’s recommended approach for building a custom report.

A. BI Analytics

B. BI Answers

C. BI Publisher

D. OTBI Reports

Answer: C

Which are the three broad categories, based on which cross subject area reporting can be built?

A. using common dimensions

B. using common and local dimensions

C. combining logical SQL using the Advanced tab

D. combining more than one result set from different subject areas by using set operators such as Union, union all, Intersection, Cartesian, and Difference

Answer: ABD

A participant is transferred to another business unit.Identify the configuration changes required to calculate and pay compensation to the participant in the new business unit.

A. Assign the participant to a new role and resource group.

B. Create a new HR employee record for this participant as transfer across business unit is not supported by the application.

C. Assign the participant to the global business unit and global role,

D. Enter an End Date for the participant record in the current business unit, import participant into the new business unit, and assign

appropriate Comp Plan and Paygroup.

Answer: D

Identify the roles that are critical for implementation users to enable them to perform setup tasks In Fusion Setup Manager.

A. COMPENSATION PLAN ADMINISTRATOR

B. APPLICATION IMPLEMENTATION CONSUI TANT

C. INCENTIVE COMPENSATION APPLICATION ADMINISTRATOR

D. INCENTIVE COMPENSATION INTEGRATION SPECIAUSI

E. BI_ADMINISTRATOR

Answer: D

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As part of your Oracle Database 12c post-installation tasks, you run these commands:

Cd $ORACLE_HOME/bin

srvctl stop database -d myDb

chopt enable dm

srvctl start database -d myDb

What does this do?

A. It enables the Oracle Data Mining option in your Oracle binary files.

B. It creates the Fast Recovery Area disk group.

C. It generates Client Static Library.

D. It configures one of the Oracle user accounts.

E. It configures Oracle Net Services.

F. It configures Oracle Messaging Gateway.

Answer: A

Which statement about CDB architecture is true?

A. Oracle-supplied metadata resides only in the root container.

B. A seed PDB can sometimes be opened for particular operations.

C. Multiple PDBs with the same name can reside in the same CDB.

D. A CDB can have an infinite number of PDBs.

E. You can create common users in PDBs.

Answer: A

Which two statements are true about shared server sessions?

A. No Program Global Area (PGA) is allocated for shared server processes.

B. User Global Area is stored in System Global Area (SGA).

C. Shared SQL Area is allocated from Program Global Area (PGA).

D. Private SQL Area is allocated from Library Cache.

E. Large Pool is used for SQL work areas.

Answer: AE

Which targets can be managed by using Enterprise Manager Cloud Control?

A. Hosts and databases

B. Hosts, databases, and application servers

C. Application servers and web applications

D. Databases, Oracle Management Server (OMS), and Oracle Management Repository (OMR)

E. Databases, application servers, and web applications

F. Hosts, databases, application servers, web applications, OMS, and OMR

Answer: F

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Which feature provides real-time change detection?

A.Grid Control

B.Configuration Change Console

C.Application Configuration Console

D.Database Control

Answer: B

Which statement is true about Oracle Enterprise Manager?

A.It enables users to provision Java EE applications (EAR and WAR files) across WebLogic Server domains.

B.It enables users to provision APEX applications across WebLogic domains.

C.It enables users to provision PL/SQL applications across WebLogic Servers domains.

D.It enables users to provision Java EE applications (EAR and WAR files), but not across a WebLogic Server domain.

Answer: A

Which one would you import from an LDAP directory to use in Oracle Enterprise manager Cloud Control Chargebacks?

A.Server names

B.IP addresses

C.Cost centers

D.Database account names

E.Subsidiaries

Answer: E

Which three metrics are monitored by Oracle Enterprise Manager Business Transaction Management?

A.Availability

B.Memory usage

C.Throughput

D.Faults

E.SQL executes

Answer: A,C,D

When Oracle Enterprise manager is integrated with My Oracle Support, what are the three capabilities that can be performed?

A.Assigning incidents to the IT staff for problem resolution

B.Monitoring, updating, and creating service requests C.Comparing the patches installed in your configuration with What Oracle recommends

D.Integrating with the external ticketing system and viewing the status of the help desk tickets opened Oracle Enterprise Manager

E.Viewing the current patch recommendations from Oracle in Oracle Enterprise Manager’s Patch Recommendation

Answer: B,C,E

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Share some Oracle Database 1Z0-066 exam questions and answers below.
Which two are prerequisites for configuring flashback database for Oracle 12c databases, in a Data Guard environment?

A.a flash recovery area must be configured

B.The database must be in MOUNT state.

C.The database must be in ARCHIVELOG mode.

D.A far sync instance must be configured to flash back a standby when the primary has been flashed back.

E.The Data Guard Broker must be used.

Answer: A, C

Examine the Data Guard configuration:

DGMGRL > show configuration;

Configuration-Animals

Protection Mode MaxPerformance

Databases

dogs-Primary database sheep-Snapshot standby database cats-Snapshot standby database

Fast-Start Failover: DISABLED

Configuration Status: SUCCESS

You receive an error while attempting to raise the protection mode to Maximum Availability:

DGMGDRL> edit configuration set protection mode as max availability;

Error ORA-16627 operation disallowed since no standby databases would remain to support protection mode Failed.

Identify two statements that you can execute, either one of which will enable successful raising of the protection mode to Maximum Availability.

A.DGMGRL> convert database sheep to physical standby;

B.DGMGRL> convert database cats to physical standby;

C.DGMGRL> edit database dogs set property LogXptMode= fastsync;

D.DGMGRL> edit database sheep set property LogXptMode= fastsync;

E.DGMGRL> edit database cats set property LogXptMode= sync;

Answer: B, E

Which two statements are true for Data Guard environments with multi-tenant databases?

A.DB_UNIQUE_NAME must be specified differently for each pluggable database within a multi-tenant standby database.

B.Each pluggable database within a multi-tenant physical standby database has a minimum of one associated Oracle Net service name.

C.Each pluggable database within a multi-tenant physical standby has one MRP background process running during redo apply.

D.A pluggable database within a multi-tenant standby database can have a different open mode than the container database

E.A pluggable database within a multi-tenant standby database can have a different database role than the container database.

Answer: A, D

You must configure an Oracle Data Guard environment consisting of:

1. A primary database

2 Three Physical Standby Databases

You must meet these requirements:

A designated physical standby database should become the primary database automatically whenever the primary database falls

The chosen protection mode should provide the highest level of protection possible without violating the other requirement

Which redo transport mode and protection mode would you configure to meet these requirements?

A.SYNC NOAFFRIM and Maximum Protection

B.SYNC NOAFFIRM and Maximum Availability

C.ASYNC and Maximum Performance

D.SYNC AFFIRM and Maximum Availability

E.SYNC AFFIRM and Maximum Protection

Answer: D

Your Data Guard environment has two remote physical standby databases

Client applications use the local naming method to connect to the primary database instance.

You want applications to automatically connect to the new primary database instance in case of a switchover or a failover

Which will fulfill this requirement?

A.Create a database service on each standby database that is started automatically by a trigger, when the database rote is PRIMARY, modify the connection description used by client applications to include all the standby hosts and connect to the database instance using that service name.

B.Create a database service on the primary database that is started automatically by a trigger, when the database role is PRIMARY, modify the connection descriptors used by client applications to include all the standby hosts and connect to the database instance using that service name.

C.Set the INSTANCE_NAME parameter identically on all databases; modify the connection descriptor on client applications to include all the standby hosts and connect to the database instance using that service name.

D.Set the DB_NAME and DB_UNIQUE_NAME identical on all databases, modify the connection descriptors on client applications to include all the standby hosts and connect to the database using that service name.

Answer: A

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1Z0-417 Database Performance and Tuning Essentials 2015 | Certpark

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Share some Oracle Database 1Z0-417 exam questions and answers below.
When planning Oracle Database Architecture, which option can be used to reduce the number of Oracle

processes waiting in the Operating System run queue and to ensure that database CPU load is healthy?

A. Exadata

B. Oracle Job Scheduler

C. DATABASE_MAXCPUS=YES

D. Oracle Database Resource Manager

E. DB_RAC_MAXCPU=YES

F. Oracle Grid Control

Answer: D

Explanation:

Reference: http://www.oracle.com/technetwork/database/performance/resource-managertwp-133705.pdf

For which one would you use an index fast full scan to improve performance?

A. a query having all the columns of an index in the where clause

B. a query that does not need to access table rows

C. a query that needs to access table rows along with an index

D. a column in an index that is compressed

Answer: A

Explanation:

All of the columns required by SQL must reside in the index tree; that is, all columns in the SELECT and

WHERE clauses must exist in the index. Reference:

http://www.dba-oracle.com/t_index_fast_full_scan.htm

Which two would automatically create an entry in V$SQL_MONITOR?

A. a parallelized SQL statement

B. any SQL statement run

C. any DML statement

D. a statement that consumes at least 1 second of CPU or I/O time.

E. a statement that consumes at least 5 second of CPU or I/O time.

F. any DDL statement

Answer: C,F

Explanation:

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/TGSQL/tgsql_monit.htm#TGSQL789

As of Oracle Database 12c, which functionality to access database diagnostic and performance has

been superseded by Oracle Enterprise Manager Database Express?

A. SQL Developer

B. SQL Plus

C. Database console

D. SQL Express

E. Grid Control

Answer: C

Upon migration to Oracle Database 12c, a customer asked that monitoring at an individual database

level be disabled in favor of database performance monitoring consolidated and centralized across their

enterprise.

Which are two actions you would take to meet the customer’s requirements?

A. Disable Oracle Enterprise Manager Database Express by setting the HTTP Port to 0.

B. For the always active Oracle Enterprise Manager Database Express process, create a script that will

disable that process upon database boot.

C. Using the appropriate architecture implement Oracle Enterprise Manager.

D. Delete the “express” directory in Oracle Home to disable Oracle Enterprise Manager Database

Express.

E. Changes permissions of the “express” directory to real only by root.

F. Enable SNMP and configure MIBS on each database and forward database monitoring SNMP traps.

Answer: B,E

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