2018 Updated CCDP 210-250 exam dumps

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Study newest CCNA Cyber Ops 210-250 exam questions and answers below.
Which security monitoring data type is associated with application server logs?

A. alert data

B. statistical data

C. session data

D. transaction data

Answer: A

Which two terms are types of cross site scripting attacks? (Choose two)

A. directed

B. encoded

C. stored

D. reflected

E. cascaded

Answer: CD

If a web server accepts input from the user and passes it to a bash shell, to which attack method is it vulnerable?

A. input validation

B. hash collision

C. command injection

D. integer overflow

Answer: B

Which evasion method involves performing actions slower than normal to prevent detection?

A. traffic fragmentation

B. tunneling

C. timing attack

D. resource exhaustion

Answer: A

Which definition of a fork in Linux is true?

A. daemon to execute scheduled commands

B. parent directory name of a file pathname

C. macros for manipulating CPU sets

D. new process created by a parent process

Answer: D

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Study newest CCNA Cyber Ops 210-255 exam questions and answers below.
In VERIS, an incident is viewed as a series of events that adversely affects the information assets of an organization. Which option contains the elements that every event is comprised of according to VERIS incident model’?

A. victim demographics, incident description, incident details, discovery & response

B. victim demographics, incident details, indicators of compromise, impact assessment

C. actors, attributes, impact, remediation

D. actors, actions, assets, attributes

Answer: D

Which two options can be used by a threat actor to determine the role of a server? (Choose two.)


B. tracert

C. running processes

D. hard drive configuration

E. applications

Answer: CD

Which CVSSv3 metric value increases when the attacker is able to modify all files protected by the vulnerable component?

A. confidentiality

B. integrity

C. availability

D. complexity

Answer: A

Which two components are included in a 5-tuple? (Choose two.)

A. port number

B. destination IP address

C. data packet

D. user name

E. host logs

Answer: BC

During which phase of the forensic process is data that is related to a specific event labeled and recorded to preserve its integrity?

A. collection

B. examination

C. reporting

D. investigation

Answer: A

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2018 Updated CCNA Routing and Switching 210-060 exam dumps

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Study newest CCNA Collaboration 210-060 exam questions and answers below.
Users report that no phone numbers are listed in the corporate directory, but the employee names are listed. Which option must be verified in Cisco Unified Communications Manager Administration to display the directory numbers?

A. The primary extension is configured.

B. The user’s phones are listed as a controlled device.

C. Users are associated with their directory number.

D. The telephone number field has been filled in appropriately.

Answer: D

An administrator wants to verify that a new PRI is properly connected to the PSTN status. Which Layer 2 status should be seen?





Answer: A

Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager system report shows high and low call volume patterns?

A. CAR report

B. QoS by Gateway

C. QoS by call types

D. Traffic summary

E. Traffic summary by extension

Answer: D

What is the interface type that you should use to connect a PSTN analog line to the VoIP network?



C. E and M

D. Serial

Answer: B

Which three locations can an administrator import from to create users on Cisco Unity Connection? (Choose three.)

A. Bulk administration tool


C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager via AXL

D. Outlook

E. Presence

F. Cisco Compatible Extensions

Answer: A,B,C

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2018 Updated CCNA Routing and Switching 210-065 exam dumps

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Study newest CCNA Collaboration 210-065 exam questions and answers below.
Which four features are supported by Cisco TelePresence Server for all hardware models in remotely managed mode? (Choose four.)

A. auto-attendant

B. ClearPath

C. Cluster sizes of more than 5 servers

D. Cascading

E. Active presence for all devices

F. Support for Conductor

G. Native scheduling capabilities

Answer: B, D, E, F

Video conference bridges accomplish their conferencing functionality by doing media transcoding or media switching. What are the three main advantages of media switching? (Choose three.)

A. extremely low latency

B. endpoints that can customize layouts

C. the ability to upscale low-resolution video

D. lower cost per port

E. typically higher port capacity

F. the ability for endpoints to connect at different bandwidth speeds and resolutions

Answer: A, D, E

Which three Cisco TelePresence endpoints are considered immersive endpoints? (Choose three.)

A. TX9000

B. EX90

C. C20

D. T3

E. SX10

F. CTS-3000

G. Jabber Video for TelePresence

Answer: A, D, F

Which personal Cisco TelePresence unit can be used as a replacement for a person’s computer monitor on their desk?

A. EX90

B. MX800

C. TX9000

D. SX10

E. SX80

Answer: A

During the initial setup of the Cisco TelePresence System 500, you are required to do an initial camera setup that fails.

What might be a primary reason that the failure occurs?

A. The camera cannot focus on the target.

B. The room is too dark.

C. The system is too far away from the target.

D. The cable to the camera is not connected correctly.

Answer: B

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2018 Updated CCIE 200-710 exam dumps

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Study newest LPIC-2 200-710 exam questions and answers below.
Consider the following two files. When you run test.php, what would the output look like?


include "MyString.php";


print strlen("Hello world!");


namespace MyFramework\String;

function strlen($str)


return \strlen($str)*2; // return double the string length


print strlen("Hello world!")

A. 12,12

B. 12,24

C. 24,12

D. 24,24

E. PHP Fatal error: Cannot redeclare strlen()

Answer: C

Which line of code can be used to replace the INSERT comment in order to output "hello"?

class C {

public $ello == ‘ello’;

public $c;

public $m;

function _construct($y) {

$this->c == static function($f) {



$this->m == function() {

return "h";


$x == new C("h");

$f == $x->c;

echo $f($x->m);

A. return $this->m() . "ello";

B. return $f() . "ello";

C. return 11h11 • $this->ello;

D. return $y. "ello";

Answer: B

What is the output of the following code?

$f = function () { return "hello";};

echo gettype($f);

A. hello

B. string

C. object

D. function

Answer: C

What is the output of the following code?

class C {

public $x = 1;

function _construct() { ++$this->x;}

function _invoke() { return ++$this->x; }

function _toString() { return (string) –$this->x;}

$obj = new C();

echo $obj();

A. 0

B. 1

C. 2

D. 3

Answer: D

Which of these elements can be encapsulated by namespaces and made accessible from the outside?

A. Only classes

B. Classes, functions and constants

C. Classes, functions, constants and variables

Answer: B

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2018 Updated CCIE 200-401 exam dumps

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Study newest Cisco Specialist 200-401 exam questions and answers below.
EtherNet/IP is an Ethernet implementation of which protocol?


B. Industrial Protocol

C. DeviceNet

D. ControlNet

Answer: A

Which prompt is used to configure parameters for the Ethernet ports of an industrial switch?

A. Switch(config-if)#

B. Switch(config-if-ind)#

C. Switch(config-line)#

D. Switch(config-ind)#

E. Switch(config-vlan)#

Answer: A

Why is SSH preferred over Telnet as a method of accessing a network device to alter or view the configuration?

A. Telnet encrypts only the login information, not the entire transmission.

B. SSH requires fewer network resources and no additional configuration.

C. Telnet is more difficult to use and configure than SSH.

D. SSH encrypts the login and session information.

Answer: D

Which three of the following components must be elected before the Spanning Tree Protocol can converge in a switched LAN? (Choose three.)

A. designated ports

B. duplex operating mode

C. fast mode ports

D. root bridge

E. root ports

F. BDPU priority

Answer: A, D, E

What are the two most relevant factors in determining the class of administration that is required to maintain the telecommunications infrastructure? (Choose two.)

A. the size of the infrastructure

B. the complexity of the infrastructure

C. the age of the infrastructure

D. the industry that the infrastructure supports

E. the physical environment of the infrastructure

Answer: A, B

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Study newest CCNA Wireless 200-355 exam questions and answers below.
A customer has ordered a Cisco 5760 Wireless Controller.

What speed and quantity of ports are needed for full-speed operation?

A. 6 x 1 Gb

B. 6 x 10 Gb

C. 2 x 10 Gb

D. 2 x 1 Gb

E. 8 x 1 Gb

F. 8 x 10 Gb

Answer: B

During an upgrade, the wireless infrastructure has seen a few access points join and then drop off the network. After further investigation, it appears the access points may have an IOS code version that is causing issues.

Where in the controller is this information found?

A. GUI > Wireless > Access Point > General

B. CLI > show ap image all

C. GUI > Monitor > Software Version

D. CLI > show sysinfo

Answer: A

A network engineer notices that two mesh APs are having problems communicating. After reviewing the current radio configurations, it is noted that one AP is transmitting at 3 mW while the other is transmitting at 60 mW.

How many decibels would the 3-mW AP need its power increased to match the 60-mW AP?

A. 8

B. 12

C. 13

D. 20

E. 57

Answer: C

A customer is concerned about ease of wireless management. Which deployment model requires the highest administrative overhead to deploy and manage?

A. autonomous

B. local mode

C. cloud

D. converged

Answer: A

An engineer is conducting an active survey for indoor coverage in a warehouse. The warehouse has long aisles with racks that extend to the ceiling.

Which antenna type has a radiation pattern that is suited to provide coverage in each aisle?

A. Yagi

B. patch

C. omnidirectional

D. dipole

Answer: B

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Study newest CCDA 200-310 exam questions and answers below.
Which two design criteria require VLANs in a proposed solution? (Choose two.)

A. video streaming on the LAN

B. security between departments

C. the segmenting of collision domains

D. the segmenting of broadcast domains

E. the use of multivendor equipment

F. a limited corporate budget

Answer: B,D

Which two options should be used to achieve fast convergence in an OSPF network? (Choose two.)

A. Bidirectional Forwarding Detection

B. fast hellos

C. LSA retransmission interval

D. SPF throttle timers

E. LSA group pacing

Answer: A,B

In which operation mode does the AP act as a dedicated sensor for location-based and intrusion detection services?

A. monitor mode

B. promiscuous mode

C. discovery mode

D. sniffer mode

Answer: A

What phase of Cisco’s PPDIOO is the final test of the appropriateness of the design?

A. Operate

B. Optimize

C. Design

D. Implement

Answer: A

A remote user for a company must periodically connect to the company network to access internal resources using a company laptop with software that was preinstalled by the IT department. Which VPN method is used for connectivity?



C. IPsec VPN


Answer: C

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Study newest CCNA Routing and Switching 200-105 exam questions and answers below.
Which feature can you use to monitor traffic on a switch by replicating it to another port or ports on the same switch?

A. copy run start

B. traceroute

C. the ICMP Echo IP SLA


Answer: D

Which statement about QoS default behavior is true?

A. Ports are untrusted by default.

B. VoIP traffic is passed without being tagged.

C. Video traffic is passed with a well-known DSCP value of 46.

D. Packets are classified internally with an environment.

E. Packets that arrive with a tag are untagged at the edge of an administrative domain.

Answer: E

Which statement about switch access ports is true?

A. They drop packets with 802.1Q tags.

B. A VLAN must be assigned to an access port before it is created.

C. They can receive traffic from more than one VLAN with no voice support

D. By default, they carry traffic for VLAN 10.

Answer: A

While you were troubleshooting a connection issue, a ping from one VLAN to another VLAN on the same switch failed.

Which command verifies that IP routing is enabled on interfaces and the local VLANs are up?

A. show ip interface brief

B. show ip nat statistics

C. show ip statistics

D. show ip route

Answer: A

Which three of these statements regarding 802.1Q trunking are correct? (Choose three.)

A. 802.1Q native VLAN frames are untagged by default.

B. 802.1Q trunking ports can also be secure ports.

C. 802.1Q trunks can use 10 Mb/s Ethernet interfaces.

D. 802.1Q trunks require full-duplex, point-to-point connectivity.

E. 802.1Q trunks should have native VLANs that are the same at both ends.

Answer: A,C,E

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2018 Updated Cisco Specialist 200-125 exam dumps

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Study newest CCNA Routing and Switching 200-125 exam questions and answers below.
Which interface counter can you use to diagnose a duplex mismatch problem?

A. no earner B. late collisions

C. giants

D. CRC errors

E. deferred

F. runts

Answer: B

If a router has 3 hosts connected in one port and two other hosts connected in another port, how may broadcast domains are present on the router?

A. 5

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Answer: B

Which two statements about using leased lines for your WAN infrastructure are true? (Choose two.)

A. Leased lines provide inexpensive WAN access.

B. Leased lines with sufficient bandwidth can avoid latency between endpoints.

C. Leased lines require little installation and maintenance expertise.

D. Leased lines provide highly flexible bandwidth scaling.

E. Multiple leased lines can share a router interface.

F. Leased lines support up to T1 link speeds.

Answer: CD

Which two statements about late collisions are true? (Choose two.)

A. They may indicate a duplex mismatch.

B. By definition, they occur after the 512th bit of the frame has been transmitted.

C. They indicate received frames that did not pass the FCS match.

D. They are frames that exceed 1518 bytes.

E. They occur when CRC errors and interference occur on the cable.

Answer: AB

If you are configuring syslog messages specifying `logging trap warning’, which log messages will the router send?

A. 0-4

B. 0-5

C. 0-6

D. 0-2

E. 0-1

Answer: A

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